Word of Command   
     
Cost:   BB
Instant 

Rules Text (Oracle):  Look at target opponent's hand and choose a card from it. That player plays that card with his or her own mana, but you make all decisions it calls for. The player is required only to use mana in his or her mana pool and mana that can be drawn from lands. 

Tendrils of Agony   
   
Cost:  2BB
Sorcery 
 
Rules Text (Oracle):  Target player loses 2 life and you gain 2 life.
Storm (When you play this spell, copy it for each spell played before it this turn. You may choose new targets for the copies.) 

First of all, I know that WOC is janky, and most likely has no place in Magic anymore. Also, if anyone ever plays it in a tournament, the opponent will likely (and probably should) raise his or her hand and yell "Judge".  Neglecting this, I have always wanted to use this card somehow.  It just seems like it would be fun.

Questions:
1) Dealing with the second part of the WOC first - The player is required only to use mana in his or her mana pool and mana that can be drawn from lands.
Does the mana have to come from only lands.  If someone were to go off in a combo and play dark rits or cabal ritual, etc., does this mana count.  For example, they have 4 floating mana (of the right type) floating in the mana pool, before a sorcery is played.  The card does say " The player is required only to use mana in his or her mana pool and mana that can be drawn from lands."

2) Deals with the first part of WOC - Look at target opponent's hand and choose a card from it. That player plays that card with his or her own mana, but you make all decisions it calls for.

If you were to play WOC before someone has played a sorcery like Tendirls (considering it is legal for the player to play a socrery), do you get to direct the storm effect as well.  Obviously you can direct the original 2 damage to any target player.  WOC does state "That player plays that card with his or her own mana, but YOU make ALL decisions it calls for", and Storm is (When you play this spell, copy it for each spell played before it this turn. you may choose new targets for the copies.) .  It seems to me like you may also get to direct storm spells (the ALL decisons it (the card) calls for", unless I'm missing something. However, I've been known to be wrong before.  If you cant direct the storm effect, why not?

This question is only for this part of the game, not the part where a player has a chance to repsond to WOC. It is common practice to respond to Word of Command by using up any spells or mana you have prior to letting it resolve. Say all he has left in his hand is Tendrils, and they can't use the mana for anything else.

Last question, Empty the Warrens.

Put two 1/1 red Goblin creature tokens into play.  If you play WOC forcing someone to play ETW, would you get the get the tokens?

Thanks Apollyon,

Still confusing to me a little though.

You said: 
When both players do nothing after blockers are declared, combat damage assignments goes on the stack. Players can choose to either play spells or abilities before or after combat damage goes on the stack. 

And this:

it depends on when you play the instants. If you play them before combat damage is on the stack, they will resolve before combat damage goes on the stack. If you play them after combat damage is on the stack, they will resolve after combat damage is assigned, but before combat damage resolves.

So…  What happens if no spells or abilities were played immediately after blockers were declared, then the combat damage gets assigned (but damage hasn't resolved yet).  Now a bolt is played and I respond with CTW.  Does a player have to say "I'm playing this spell before, or after combat damage was assigned"?  How exactly do you know which is which?  An argument can be made for both things to be true, correct?  One person can say we played these spells after damage was assigned, and the other says, no we played these spells before damage was assigned.   Because combat damage is assigned to the stack, does that mean it is on the stack and it will resolve eventually? Can spells or abilities be played after combat damage is assigned, but before combat damage resolves?

TheOldMan

Culling the Weak

Instant
As an additional cost to play Culling the Weak, sacrifice a creature. Add {B}{B}{B} to your mana pool.

Phyrexian Negator:

Creature - Horror
Trample
Whenever Phyrexian Negator is dealt damage, sacrifice a permanent for each 1 damage dealt to it.

Game setting: My combat phase.

I attack with Negator.  He blocks with 2/2 Goblin, then bolts my negator.  In response I play culling the weak.  His turn for response.  I announce any more plays during combat phase and ask damage on the stack.  He agrees- damage on the stack.  I sacrifice my Negator, and have 4 mana (later in the turn I play Skeletal Scyring drawing 3 cards - Yawg's Will for the win).  He says I have to sacfrice 5 permanents from the 2 damage from the Goblin and 3 from bolt.  An argument ensues.  I say Culling the Weak resolves before the bolt, sacrificing negator removing it to graveyard, before the damage was dealt to it.  Oh yeah and the 3 damage goes through from negators trample ability.  He says damage was on the stack and the 5 damage still gets done to the negator.  And then states (or wonders) at least the 3 damage from the bolt goes to negator.

Question 1: Does 5 damage go to the negator?  Does the 3 damage from bolt go to the negator.
Question 2:  Am I right in game sequence?  When instants are played during combat, do they resolve after combat damage is on the stack, or before damage is on the stack.  In that case, the same thing would happen, no damage dealt to negator as long as a response to the bolt was CTW.

Posts merged, Oracle Text cleaned up. Instead of replying to your own post to correct it, edit the corrections into the original post (click the Modify button in the top right corner of the post).
-Godder

First of all, I'm new at this (frist post - new account), and I know this belongs in the Rules forum, but there was no place for me to post a new question.

Tabernacle at the Pendrell Vale (Oracle) "All creatures have "At the beginning of your upkeep, sacrifice this creature unless you pay ."

Ichorid (Oracle) "Haste At end of turn, sacrifice Ichorid. At the beginning of your upkeep, if Ichorid is in your graveyard, you may remove a black creature card in your graveyard other than Ichorid from the game. If you do, return Ichorid to play."

Nether Shadow (Oracle) "Haste At the beginning of your upkeep, if Nether Shadow is in your graveyard with three creature cards above it, you may put Nether Shadow into play."

Question:
Tabernacle is in play.  At the beginning of someones next upkeep, both Ichorid and NS come into play.  Does the person who put these creatures into play have to pay 1 for each or sacrifice them.? To me this is tricky. Since Tabernacle was already in play, and the creatures were not, then Tabernacle's effect acts frist with no creatures in play, and then the creatures come into play and don't have to pay 1 or be sacrificed.  The weird part is, how many parts of a beginning of an upkeep are there.  Magic is so literal, and technicial at times with activated abilities, static abilities, replacement effects, do this first, last spell on the stack does this, all the steps of combat, 1st main phase, 2nd main phase, end of turn, blah, blah, blah blah, blah, etc.  All cards do say "At the beginning of your upkeep, either pay this, or sacrifice creatures, or if this is in your graveyard put this creature into play."  Maybe I should ask, Do the creatures also come into play at the beginning of someone's upkeep? If they do what takes precedent?

Oh well, sorry the quesiton was so long.
This came up in a casual game, and an argument ensued.... I lost
Thanks,
TheOldMan